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I am going to give an analogy here for the Trinity. Almost always these types of things are actually the modalism heresy. Like the water being liquid, solid, gas is actually modalism. It is modalism because it is one thing taking 3 forms, and each of the three states is not fully the water in every way. This is not the right understanding of the trinity. The trinity rightly understood is one God having 3 persons, all equally God and fully God, yet distinct from each other.


However this is maybe the closest analogy I have come across using human terms.

Image a dry erase board. You grab three dry erase pens of Red, Green, and blue. Now you perfect draw a red circle on top of a green circle, on top of a blue circle. Now you have all three colors making one perfect circle, however the red circle is not the green or blue circle, the green circle is not the red or blue circle, and the blue circle is not the red or green circle. However, each individual colored circle is perfectly the circle. The red circle is the circle, the green is the circle, and the blue is the circle. Also too all three together are the circle

Obviously there are some problems , like wouldn’t the colors mix? But this is the closest analogy to the trinity I have found using material ideas.
 
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Easy to answer. Daniel was seeing not just into the spirit world, he was seeing into the future. Of the beasts he saw we know that one was Alexander the Great and so on. The ancient of days he saw was obviously God. He also saw the son of man which is obviously a man, and that is the Man Christ Jesus. Not duality. He saw God and he saw the flesh that God would put on to save us. Read revelation 1. John describes the same thing as Daniel but calls it the Son of man. When we get to heaven we will see God. He will be sitting by himself on ONE throne. He will have scars in His hands, feet, and brow. And we will bow down and worship him.
But that is not how Daniel reads. And I am not worried about the prophetic part. I want you to read it carefully and pay attention to the context. Specifically this:

““I saw in the night visions, and behold, with the clouds of heaven there came one like a son of man, and he came to the Ancient of Days and was presented before him.”
‭‭Daniel‬ ‭7‬:‭13‬ ‭ESV‬‬
https://bible.com/bible/59/dan.7.13.ESV

There is a fixed scene, it is a throne room. It is not seeing the same person just in the past then in the future like you said. It is not seeing God, then seeing the flesh in the future. This is happening all in one moment, this is import. You have the Son of Man come to the Ancient of Days and he is presented before. Then you have the Ancient of Days giving the Son of Man all of his power glory and dominion.

There are two distinct people here, this is happening in the same moment. How could God be presented before himself if he does not have distinct persons? How could God give something to himself, if he does not have distinct persons? If this was a vision of God with no persons, it would just be the ancient of days going down and become the Son of Man, that is not what is happening. Here The Son of Man is not the Ancient of Days, and The Ancient of Days is not the Son of Man, yet both are given attributes of God.

Additionally, the long standing understanding of this verse in the early church was these were two distinct persons yet one God. So your argument falls flat linguistically (again) as well as historically (again).

You always have this problem when you try to apply the modalism heresy to scripture the New Testament there are numerous examples that show Jesus interacting with the Father even Praying to Him. Why would Jesus be praying to himself. When he is dying on the cross, why would he call out to Himself, ABBA Father. I will go more into one specific verse deeper because it was used to refute the modalism (sebalianism) heresy by Origen and others in the 100s (yes way before Nicea, way before Constantine this heresy was handled with Trinitarian thought straight from the Bible)

Please answer also to the Garden before his crucifixion.

“When Jesus had spoken these words, he lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, “Father, the hour has come; glorify your Son that the Son may glorify you,” John 17:1
‭‭
Jesus isn’t praying to himself. Why would he ask himself (father) to glorify himself (son) in turn so he could glorify himself (son)

“And now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had with you before the world existed.”
‭‭John‬ ‭17‬:‭5‬ ‭

Jesus is very clearly not talking about his own presence, he is asking to be glorified in someone else’s presence (the Father). This point is super clear in Greek by the way it is conjugated, but it is also plain in English. If Jesus is praying to himself, why would he be asking to be in someone else’s presence?

I could go on and on, but go read all of John 17 and Jesus prayer here to the Father. The distinct persons here are self evident in English, but in the Greek it is even clearer and linguistically impossible (as well as logically impossible) for Jesus to be praying to himself.

The fact is your position is the one that goes against the plain reading of scripture.
 
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Possibly Melchizedek “ Without father, without mother, without descent, having neither beginning of days, nor end of life”. Who could that be since no man has seen God the Father?

Also here in Daniel
“ Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astonished, and rose up in haste, and spake, and said unto his counsellors, Did not we cast three men bound into the midst of the fire? They answered and said unto the king, True, O king.

He answered and said, Lo, I see four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the form of the fourth is like the Son of God”
GOD was in there with them... Again God didnt have a body so How was he in a body and how was he seen? a
Old Testament evidence of the Trinity

In psalm 110 David said:

The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
Talking about the Right hand or the Strength of God Which is Jesus Christ and the Only Body
The Holy Ghost as part of the Godhead is described in 1 John 5-7
""For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."
Yes and the are all the Same Person.. Jesus.. One Body and One Spirit...


Romans 10 9
“ That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved.”.
God the Son died on the cross and God the Father raised him from the dead.

Also in Mathew 11 Jesus said

“All things are delivered unto me of my Father: and no man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son“
No again.. There is Only One Lord that is through all and in you all.. Jesus is presented as the ultimate High Priest after the order of Melchizedek. This is to Show us to Christ.


The Door is Jesus ( way into Heaven) through his blood which is tied to his name JESUS. Through the NAme the Water is Turned into the Blood through Baptism.

HEnce the Name, Blood and The Godhead.. Unless you believe that he is The I AM then you will die in your sins.. Old Testament I AM is the God almighty in the Old Testament and the Flesh in the New Testament
 
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GOD was in there with them... Again God didnt have a body so How was he in a body and how was he seen? a

Talking about the Right hand or the Strength of God Which is Jesus Christ and the Only Body

Yes and the are all the Same Person.. Jesus.. One Body and One Spirit...



No again.. There is Only One Lord that is through all and in you all.. Jesus is presented as the ultimate High Priest after the order of Melchizedek. This is to Show us to Christ.


The Door is Jesus ( way into Heaven) through his blood which is tied to his name JESUS. Through the NAme the Water is Turned into the Blood through Baptism.

HEnce the Name, Blood and The Godhead.. Unless you believe that he is The I AM then you will die in your sins.. Old Testament I AM is the God almighty in the Old Testament and the Flesh in the New Testament
You are actually trying to convince us that the same GOD that created this entire universe and everything in it is totally incapable of manifesting himself in 3 different but equal persons. You're dumber than a Democrat. Or a troll.
 
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Unless you believe that he is The I AM then you will die in your sins.. Old Testament I AM is the God almighty in the Old Testament and the Flesh in the New Testament
This leads me to believe, again that you do not understand the trinity. Trinitarians do believe Jesus is the great I AM, for he even says it “before Abraham was, I AM”

In the OT the I AM is YHWH in Hebrew BTW. As with most understandings of the OT, we are not fully told what they all mean and they are Veiled. Then we have Jesus come along and show us, he builds on the Two Powers in Heaven and shows more fully how it works, as a Trinity.

Just like you Trinitarians believe Jesus is fully God, the Father is fully God, and The Spirit is fully God. We believe that Father, Son, and Spirit are all one God; so we believe the shema in Deuteronomy that you have quoted many times. (Arians or JWs are the ones that believe Jesus isn’t God) So by your salvation metric above, we as trinitarians are good to go

We just believe as the NT and Church history shows that the Father, Son, and Spirit are all distinct persons based on what role they play in salvation and how they relate to each other. The Father is not the Son or Spirit, but is fully God. The Son is not the Father or Spirit but is fully God. The Spirit is not the Father or Son, but is fully God.

Part of the problem is you do not understand what trinitarians are saying and you misrepresent/strawman what we do believe. Despite what you say, we do not believe in 3 gods, but only one. And despite what you say we do believe the Jesus is the only way onto salvation. That is why so much of your ranting and raving is dismissed, because sometimes you say things we agree with. The central issue is if the Father, Son, and Spirit are distinct persons based on their relationship with each other.

I would like for you to address what was said above about Daniel again, but more importantly John 17 and Jesus prayer:

When Jesus had spoken these words, he lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, “Father, the hour has come; glorify your Son that the Son may glorify you,” John 17:1
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Jesus isn’t praying to himself. Why would he ask himself (father) to glorify himself (son) in turn so he could glorify himself (son)

“And now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had with you before the world existed.”
‭‭John‬ ‭17‬:‭5‬ ‭

Jesus is very clearly not talking about his own presence, he is asking to be glorified in someone else’s presence (the Father). This point is super clear in Greek by the way it is conjugated, but it is also plain in English. If Jesus is praying to himself, why would he be asking to be in someone else’s presence?
 
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This leads me to believe, again that you do not understand the trinity. Trinitarians do believe Jesus is the great I AM, for he even says it “before Abraham was, I AM”
Their own statement of Faith says it cant be understood.. Thats the whole point is to keep it as confusing as possible.. Still Cant get Passed is the Jews beieve in 1 God.. SO how does it go from One God in the Old testament to 3 Gods? All Omni present and Omni potent and so on... There can only be one.. Jesus was made when the Fulness of Time came... He was Made Under the Law (birthed, Fathers blood came from the Holy Ghost). 1 Body 1 Spirit
In the OT the I AM is YHWH in Hebrew BTW. As with most understandings of the OT, we are not fully told what they all mean and they are Veiled. Then we have Jesus come along and show us, he builds on the Two Powers in Heaven and shows more fully how it works, as a Trinity.

But the Veil was Rent.... All has been exposed and the Apostles understandings were opened... Now they had just seen the Father and the Son in One body... Again the I and My Father Are ONE!!

John 10:30-33

King James Version

30 I and my Father are one.
31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.
32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.

Jesus made himself God? Or was he God? Of course he was and is and will always be.

Just like you Trinitarians believe Jesus is fully God, the Father is fully God, and The Spirit is fully God. We believe that Father, Son, and Spirit are all one God; so we believe the shema in Deuteronomy that you have quoted many times. (Arians or JWs are the ones that believe Jesus isn’t God) So by your salvation metric above, we as trinitarians are good to go
Negative again.. You cant Twist the Bible.. Scriptures speak on their own.. AS you see my posts are full of scripture... I like it.
We just believe as the NT and Church history shows that the Father, Son, and Spirit are all distinct persons based on what role they play in salvation and how they relate to each other. The Father is not the Son or Spirit, but is fully God. The Son is not the Father or Spirit but is fully God. The Spirit is not the Father or Son, but is fully God.
They are First off TITLES Father Son and Holy Ghost are all Title of the Same GOD.. Jesus was in the Beginning with God? Yes but not in a human form just yet but all things are made by him who was nothing made.. Jesus.. In the Mind of GOD.. Jesus the Flesh is what laid the plans for us.. We were all made in the Image of GOD... That IMAGE WAS JESUS. Very simple. One Body on SPirit

The Image of God was pulled from the Future LOGOS of God and he new he would have to Come and save the worlds from SIn.
I have the pieces needed to make 1 person in the bible.. Show me the material for 3 separate people.. as you claim

I already showed you the Trinity Belief on the Trinity and they say it cant be understood but yet the Bible says it can..
Part of the problem is you do not understand what trinitarians are saying and you misrepresent/strawman what we do believe. Despite what you say, we do not believe in 3 gods, but only one. And despite what you say we do believe the Jesus is the only way onto salvation. That is why so much of your ranting and raving is dismissed, because sometimes you say things we agree with. The central issue is if the Father, Son, and Spirit are distinct persons based on their relationship with each other.
I have Accepted a agreed Plateform for you to explain it (using the bible ) to show me the GOD HEAD.. One Body one Spirit... You claim the bible is wrong on this and other theories of Jesus and who God is.

Explain the Purpose in your Father (still waiting to see who he is the Father of) the Son and then GOD>> WHo makes the Decisions? How do you approach each one? aren't you afraid One will get jealous of the other? Confusion.
I would like for you to address what was said above about Daniel again, but more importantly John 17 and Jesus prayer:

When Jesus had spoken these words, he lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, “Father, the hour has come; glorify your Son that the Son may glorify you,” John 17:1
Again these examples are for the Faithful .. Showing Obedience The FLesh Speaking to its spirit. and the Spirit Speaking to the Flesh.. Again one body and one spirit.. How would Men have known that Jesus(flesh of God) Obeyed.. Giving Praise as we Should die daily

IF you Glorify the Son you GLorify the Father and the Spirit. as they are just Titles of God.. But this is not the name.

What is the name of the Father?

John 17

King James Version

17 These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee:
2 As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him.
3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.
4 I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do.
5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
6 I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word.. only one name Given Among men
7 Now they have known that all things whatsoever thou hast given me are of thee.
8 For I have given unto them the words which thou gavest me; and they have received them, and have known surely that I came out from thee, and they have believed that thou didst send me. Yes God Talked to himself and so on. Its shows that the Flesh can Obey Gods laws and Live Sin Free but you cant get passed the Transfer of Sin through the Blood... That is why the Holy Ghost overshadowed Mary and she Conceived (The Father is the Holy Ghost).

‭‭
Jesus isn’t praying to himself. Why would he ask himself (father) to glorify himself (son) in turn so he could glorify himself (son)

“And now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had with you before the world existed.”
‭‭John‬ ‭17‬:‭5‬ ‭

Jesus is very clearly not talking about his own presence, he is asking to be glorified in someone else’s presence (the Father). This point is super clear in Greek by the way it is conjugated, but it is also plain in English. If Jesus is praying to himself, why would he be asking to be in someone else’s presence?
When he said it was Finished the Spirit qualified it. Why Wouldnt God Talk to his body in any matter? You think Jesus needed Guidance? He wrote the Book and astonished those Scholars around him as he new the Word Through and through..WHy? He was the Word made FLesh

1 John 1

King James Version

1 That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life;

How was they able to Hear him and see him (Word of Life.. Jesus was the Word incarnate

2 (For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us;)
3 That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us: and truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ. WHere is the Father?
Obedience
 
Still Cant get Passed is the Jews beieve in 1 God.. SO how does it go from One God in the Old testament to 3 Gods?
You have been told multiple times and shown with multiple scripture that the Jews had a belief in a plurality in God. You just choose to ignore the verses or completely mis interpret them. I’ll give you the KJV this time since you ignorantly believe only it is scripture and only it is inspired (this is not in the Bible anywhere BTW) For someone who talks so much about things being revealed, it seems you would understand that these passages only show 2 people, but that God revealed the three persons of the Trinity with the coming of Jesus.

“I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought him near before him.”
‭‭Daniel‬ ‭7‬:‭13‬ ‭KJV‬‬
Here you have two distinct figures in a fixed place and one is brought before and draws near to each other. That means there is two different people, both given the aspects of God. The son of man is not “the flesh” or just “a man” as you said. The Son of man was always interpreted as a divine figure. That’s why they crucified him in the courtroom sene, he said he was The Son of Man:

“And Jesus said, I am: and ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven. Then the high priest rent his clothes, and saith, What need we any further witnesses? Ye have heard the blasphemy: what think ye? And they all condemned him to be guilty of death.”
‭‭Mark‬ ‭14‬:‭62‬-‭64‬ ‭KJV‬‬


Back to OT passages:

“Then the LORD rained upon Sodom and upon Gomorrah brimstone and fire from the LORD out of heaven;”
‭‭Genesis‬ ‭19‬:‭24‬ ‭KJV‬‬
Here we have one of the divine beings from earlier in Ch19 who ate with Lot being called LORD (which is YHWH in the Hebrew) and he is raining fire down from the LORD (YHWH) in heaven. Again these are two different people and one at least appears to be in the flesh


“And the angel of the LORD appeared unto him in a flame of fire out of the midst of a bush: and he looked, and, behold, the bush burned with fire, and the bush was not consumed. And Moses said, I will now turn aside, and see this great sight, why the bush is not burnt. And when the LORD saw that he turned aside to see, God called unto him out of the midst of the bush, and said, Moses, Moses. And he said, Here am I.”
‭‭Exodus‬ ‭3‬:‭2‬-‭4‬ ‭KJV‬‬
‭‭
Again we have two separate figures. The first part says the Angle of the LORD (YHWH) is in the bush. Then it says when the LORD (YHWH) saw Moses turn aside, God called to Moses from the bush. So we have the Angle of the Lord Being Called God and YHWH being called God, yet both are different people.

Judges 6:8, Exodus 20:2, and Leviticus 11:45 say that the LORD (YHWH) brought Israel out of Egypt. Yet judges 2:1 says the LORD (YHWH) brought Israel out of Egypt. That is two separate people and the Angle of the LORD is being called YHWH

“that the LORD sent a prophet unto the children of Israel, which said unto them, Thus saith the LORD God of Israel, I brought you up from Egypt, and brought you forth out of the house of bondage;”
‭‭Judges‬ ‭6‬:‭8

“I am the LORD thy God, which have brought thee out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage.”
‭‭Exodus‬ ‭20‬:‭2‬ ‭KJV‬‬

“For I am the LORD that bringeth you up out of the land of Egypt, to be your God: ye shall therefore be holy, for I am holy.”
‭‭Leviticus‬ ‭11‬:‭45‬ ‭KJV‬‬

“And an angel of the LORD came up from Gilgal to Bochim, and said, I made you to go up out of Egypt, and have brought you unto the land which I sware unto your fathers; and I said, I will never break my covenant with you.”
‭‭Judges‬ ‭2‬:‭1‬ ‭KJV‬‬

I know you are going to rant and rave and say something about “flesh” about all these verses, but the fact is you are absolutely wrong. The Jews understood this as the two powers in heaven and this is what Jesus builds upon in the NT, further revealing the trinity. History and Linguistic is on my side with this one, not your 19th century Pentecostal/Apostolic rantings

John 10:30-33​

30 I and my Father are one.

Jesus uses similar language to address marriage

“and said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?”
‭‭Matthew‬ ‭19‬:‭5‬ ‭KJV‬‬

So husband and wife become one Person? It says they become one. No because one is a reference to the closeness and intimacy. It does not mean numerically one. Jesus here can say I and the Father are one, and still be speak of them as two distinct persons. In fact, this makes more sense, because why doesn’t he just say I am the Father if there is no distinction.

(Insert here some rant from CptNk here about flesh. He really isn’t logically consistent is he)
They are First off TITLES Father Son and Holy Ghost are all Title of the Same GOD..

Can you give me the Bible verse that says they are titles and not persons? Seems like you aren’t pulling this from the scripture. I want to see EXACTLY where it says each of these names are TITLES. Then exactly where it says they are just titles for Jesus. Also you have to show me where all three are titles (I show you two persons and plurality, yet you dismiss this because it’s not all three, you need to show specifically where it says all three agree titles in scripture. You need to keep your own standard to be honest and consistent)

You say the same think about persons. I show you were the Father and Son INTERACT with each other and have relationship, which is what persons do. Yet you say it doesn’t say persons, so it’s not true.

The fact is all the scenes of Jesus talking with the Father only make sense if they are Two Persons, Yet one GOD. In your theology you make Jesus look like he is schizophrenic talking to himself that way. (Though by the way you type and rant I am starting to wonder if you are…)
The Image of God was pulled from the Future LOGOS of God
Where does it say that in the Bible? John 1 says the Logos (in my view the eternal Son) made everything, but it doesn’t say that we got our image from the Logos. Especially since you have said before that the Logos is an idea. How could we be made in the image of an idea, Gen 1 says we were made in the image of God.

I already showed you the Trinity Belief on the Trinity and they say it cant be understood but yet the Bible says it can
Show me in the Bible it says we can fully understand God. In fact I think it says the exact opposite

“Canst thou by searching find out God? Canst thou find out the Almighty unto perfection?”
‭‭Job‬ ‭11‬:‭7‬ ‭KJV‬‬

This sounds like mystery to me, we can’t know God unto perfection, yet you seem to claim that you can.

“The secret things belong unto the LORD our God: but those things which are revealed belong unto us and to our children for ever, that we may do all the words of this law.”
‭‭Deuteronomy‬ ‭29‬:‭29‬ ‭KJV‬‬

God has secret things that belong to him that we do not know. He has revealed some but not all. What he has revealed is Father, Son, and Spirit by nature of their interactions in scripture reveal themselves to be three separate people.


I have Accepted a agreed Plateform for you to explain it (using the bible ) to show me the GOD HEAD.. One Body one Spirit
Again I have posted multiple trinitarian verses. But here is some:

“For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.”
‭‭1 John‬ ‭5‬:‭7‬ ‭KJV‬‬

Again Three in One. One God Three persons. No this is not another veiled reference to the name of Jesus, the text does not lend itself to that.

“Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:”
‭‭Matthew‬ ‭28‬:‭19‬ ‭KJV‬‬

Again not a veiled reference to the name of Jesus. The text does not lend itself to that

“The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the communion of the Holy Ghost, be with you all. Amen. 2 Corinthians‬ ‭13‬:‭14‬ ‭KJV‬‬

All three persons being prayed to, not the name of Jesus. All three having different things to give us

“But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.”
‭‭John‬ ‭14‬:‭26‬ ‭KJV‬‬

Here the Spirit is clearly called he. That makes him a person. If it was a force, it would say “it” shall teach you. Also we have the Father sending, not Jesus. All of them are referred to as different people

“And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: and lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.”
‭‭Matthew‬ ‭3‬:‭16‬-‭17‬ ‭KJV‬‬

Again all three are present. All three are not the same

Explain the Purpose in your Father (still waiting to see who he is the Father of) the Son and then GOD>> WHo makes the Decisions? How do you approach each one? aren't you afraid One will get jealous of the other? Confusion.
You again seem to be attributing human attributes to God. But here is a verse

“I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.”
‭‭John‬ ‭5‬:‭30‬ ‭KJV‬‬

That is Jesus saying he does not seek his own will, but the will of the Father. So it’s the Fathers will. Also that show the Father and Jesus as different persons. Here it is shown that He/Jesus has a will and the Father has his own will. Here Jesus says he doesn’t seek his own will but the will of the Father. Though they have two distinct wills, because they are two persons, they have one unified will because Jesus does the will of the Father. Again only makes sense if there are two people.
How would Men have known that Jesus(flesh of God) Obeyed..
Who did Jesus obey? Whose will was he following? I say the father as John 5:30 says, he follows the will of the Father

“I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.”
‭‭John‬ ‭5‬:‭30‬ ‭KJV‬‬
IF you Glorify the Son you GLorify the Father and the Spirit. as they are just Titles of God.. But this is not the name.
Nope the text does not say that. Again you say I distort the Bible, yet you can’t even read and do simple exegesis. (Also again nowhere in the Bible does it say Father, Son, Spirit are all titles of God)

“These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee:”
‭‭John‬ ‭17‬:‭1‬ ‭KJV‬‬

Even a four year old can see that there are two separate people here. The Jesus is asking the Father to do something to him. You don’t ask yourself to do something to yourself

John 17​

Again this whole chapter shows Jesus praying and asking the Father for things. Doesn’t make sense if it’s just Jesus
Yes God Talked to himself and so on. Its shows that the Flesh can Obey Gods laws and Live Sin Free
Buddy, this is beyond just talking with himself. When people talk to themselves, they don’t ask themselves for things or ask themselves to do things to themselves. He is communicating with the separate person of the Father.

Also you keep referring to the flesh and have said that Jesus just put on flesh. Now here I am addressing another heresy other than modalism, but how can flesh obey? Don’t you have to have a mind or a will to obey? See Jesus was also fully man. As Hebrews says 2:17 Jesus was made like us in every respect. That means he had a complete human nature, he didn’t just take on flesh

Also, only Jesus could live sin free, we as humans in this state cannot live sin free. As 1 John says, if we say that the truth is not in us (maybe that is part of your problem)

“If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.”
‭‭1 John‬ ‭1‬:‭8‬ ‭KJV‬‬

1 John 1

King James Version

1 That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of life;

How was they able to Hear him and see him (Word of Life.. Jesus was the Word incarnate
Yes I agree
2 (For the life was manifested, and we have seen it, and bear witness, and shew unto you that eternal life, which was with the Father, and was manifested unto us;)
3 That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us: and truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ. WHere is the Father?
Obedience
Again you do not say that something is with itself. That is not how language works, not even in English. You are BY yourself not WITH yourself. Again you completely fail to see how you quote Trinitarian language and miss the point. You are distorting the plain reading of scripture.

But seriously you are doing eisegesis and not exegesis and you need to learn what those two things mean. You need to read the scripture word for word, paying attention to the context. You constantly skip over many words and ignore the context, distorting the meaning. You are doing this to try and fit it in your theology. If you are sincere, try doing the inductive Bible reading method. It simple, makes you pay attention to context, and doesn’t allow you to skip over things like you have done
 
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I have addressed it with Scripture. Agian the Holy Ghost overshaddowed Mary and she Conceived (which by chance makes him the Father) So God is Holy so that makes God the HolyGhost (which again makes him the Father)
Admittedly I went back through some of your posts to try and make sense of your wacky heresy. This is false, the Holy Spirit is not the Father. Let’s address the Spirit overshadowing Mary and saying that that makes him the Father.

First no gospel account says that. Here is the account from Matthew:

“Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost. Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily. But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.
‭‭Matthew‬ ‭1‬:‭18‬-‭20‬ ‭KJV‬‬

Here it says Jesus is of the Holy Ghost, not the Father. I know you are trying to equate the Father with the Spirit because of the Name Father and the fact the Spirit came over her. I’ll address this more below and show logical why that doesn’t work, but here in the gospels that doesn’t work. It says Jesus is conceived of the Spirit, not the Father

“And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.”
‭‭Luke‬ ‭1‬:‭35‬ ‭KJV‬‬

Again the Spirit came upon her and Matthew says it is conceived of the Holy Spirit, not the Father

Now your argument hinges on the idea that the Father is called the Father because he conceives Jesus. Other than the problem of how can a person conceive themselves, and the problem that the text says the Spirit conceived, the Father is not called the because he conceived Jesus. How do we know? He is called the Father in the OT

“Doubtless thou art our Father, though Abraham be ignorant of us, and Israel acknowledge us not: thou, O LORD, art our Father, our redeemer; thy name is from everlasting.
‭‭Isaiah‬ ‭63‬:‭16‬

“But now, O LORD, thou art our father; we are the clay, and thou our potter; and we all are the work of thy hand.”
‭‭Isaiah‬ ‭64‬:‭8‬ ‭KJV‬‬

God was the Creator of every human being, not just of Israel, but he had not established a covenant relationship with everyone. It is clear from the way that Isaiah addressed him that he regarded Israel’s connection to God as something special, and different from what could be said about the entire human race. For him to call God Father was to acknowledge a particular relationship with him. In these verses, God is addressed as Father, not because he is Israel’s Creator, but because he is its Redeemer, which reveals the nature of the special relationship that God has with his chosen people. So the Father was called Father before the incarnation and he is called the Father because of his Relationship and not his role in conception

The Blood Comes from the Father .....Hello? you are trying to mess up one of Gods Greatest works? If the Blood Comes from the Father and the Father which is the Holy ghost!!! The Blood is pure from Jesus and Baptism works through the Name of Jesus and now you have been buried with Christ (God).
Again in addition to what was said above, there is many NT verses that show the Spirit is not the Father and is His own person. I won’t re-post all the passages you outright dismissed. What I want to address is you saying the blood comes from the Father. I am going to assume you are getting that from Ephesians. (We won’t even address the Trinitarian language in v1-2)

“6 to the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us accepted in the beloved. 7 In whom we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;”
‭‭Ephesians‬ ‭1‬:‭6‬-‭7‬ ‭KJV‬‬

Prior to this Paul is talking about how the Father is accomplishing salvation, then we get to the bold portion. You seem to think that it is the Father who’s blood we have redemption, the problem is that is not how the language works. The “beloved” referred to at the end of v6, the sentence before the “in whom”, is referring to Jesus. The “beloved” is the Fathers beloved and he/Jesus was just mentioned previously in v5 saying “through Jesus Christ”. The “in whom we have redemption through his blood” in vs 7 is referring to the Son/Jesus and not the father. The “in him" in v7 is following on from this reference to the Beloved and expanding it. This is called an antecedent. It is even more clear in the Greek (which for some odd reason you don’t recognize even thought that is the language Paul wrote in). It’s Jesus blood, not the Father. No you can’t just say well the Father and Jesus are the same so there is no problem. The issue here again is your interpretation does not work linguistically. Here it is rendering the inserting the names

6 to the praise of the glory of his (Father) grace, wherein he (Father) hath made us accepted in the beloved (Jesus). 7 In whom (Jesus) we have redemption through his (Jesus) blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of his grace;”
‭‭Ephesians‬ ‭1‬:‭6‬-‭7‬ ‭KJV

The Spirit is not the Father and “the blood” is not from the Father
 
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